Generally, Any number to the zero power is 1, and zero to any power is 0.
That is, x ^ 0 = 1 and 0 ^ x = 0 (where x is any number). But if that is the case,
what is zero to the zero power?
Well, it is undefined (since x^y as a function of 2 variables is not continuous at the origin).
But if it could be defined, what “should” it be? 0 or 1?
A very interesting thought! If we were to ‘define’ it, i will say it should be 0. I will need to do some research (personal) on it but thinking off the cuf i feel that the base value will always have a higher priority than the power (similar to the BODMAS rules we learnt as kids).
Never know, we might end up discovering something here :)
many might explain the problem in F(x) ,G(y) where x->infinity in opssite direction to y direction bla bla bla…...... with lots of mathematical jargons.
pl observe the series.25 .5 1 2 4X-2 X-1 X0 X1 X2 wher x=21/0 1/0 00 01 02 when x=0here * is undefined : Here undefined means we cannot exactly locate the value. the same function may be think of when x approches a Very small number but not zero. Then this * SHOULD BE A VALUE GREATER THAN ZERO. so anwser is SHOULD BE A VALUE GREATER THAN ZERO. we cannot defined a Value for it. In pen and papers we requires a value to defined. but the value cannot be determinate.THATS WHY WE SAY IT IS UNDEFINED.
So Ankita
0 TO THE POWER 0 CAN BE 1 FOR SOME PARTICULAR CASES BUT CANNOT BE ZERO FOR ALL CASES
if it is defined
0 TO THE POWER 0 CAN BE 1 FOR SOME PARTICULAR CASES BUT CANNOT BE ZERO FOR ALL CASES
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